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Seventh Day Adventism & Hebrews 9

THE SANCTUARY, A.D. 31 OR A.D. 1844?

 

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"Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

John 5:39

WHERE DID JESUS GO (IN HEAVEN) IN A.D. 31?

HEBREWS NINE

We can begin to answer by asking an important and very much related question:

WHERE DID JESUS GO (IN HEAVEN) IN A.D. 31?

According to many Bible Scholars, the evangelical world, Walter Martin, Desmond Ford and many Seventh Day Adventists, Jesus entered into the Most Holy Place in Heaven in AD 31. This position of course, contradicts the historical official position of the Seventh Day Adventist Church.

Did Jesus really entered the Most Holy place in Heaven in AD 31 or in 1844 as Seventh Day Adventists propose?

According to Walter Martin, "If Jesus at the resurrection went into the second apartment of the heavenly sanctuary in heaven itself, with his own blood and obtained eternal redemption for us, then there is no 1844 investigative judgment. It is a myth....Then there isn't any investigative judgment. Nobody has been looking over the books in heaven since 1844, because Jesus entered at the time of His resurrection into heaven itself with His own blood. It's all over. He obtained eternal redemption for us. You don't need this forced holiness in which you spend your life keeping track of all the commandments that you're supposed to keep in order for you to eventually to come out on the right side"--Walter Martin, March 15, 1989 lecture in Fresno, California.

Let's analyze this answer: While there is absolutely no question that we are saved by faith, there is also no question that we must obey the faith, (Rom 16:26) with and in God's power. I see no "forced holiness" in doing what Jesus said: "If your love me, keep my commandments...He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me..." John 14: 15, 21.

Walter Martin stated that "If Jesus at the resurrection [A.D. 31] went into the second apartment of the heavenly sanctuary in heaven itself, with his own blood and obtained eternal redemption for us, then there is no 1844 investigative judgment. It is a myth."

If we follow Mr. Martin's assumption, then the opposite assumption should also hold true. That is: If Jesus at the resurrection [AD 31], did not entered the second apartment [because He entered the first apartment] of the heavenly sanctuary in heaven itself, with his own blood and obtained eternal redemption for us, then there is an 1844 Investigative Judgment. It is not a myth.

I do not believe however, that the question regarding where Jesus entered in AD 31, can be answered by either assumption alone. It is just not as sample as that. There is much more we need to investigate and research in the Bible to find out what is God's truth. The Bible alone must interpret itself. The Bible alone must give the true and proper answer.

Before we start our Bible study, let us read on how Walter Martin described the Evangelical Conferences of the mid- 1950's and the Seventh Day Adventist Church, (Walter Martin and the Seventh Day Adventist Church) at his March 15, 1989, Fresno, California, lecture (Published in the Study of Hebrews nine by Vance Ferrel of Pilgrims Rest - Beer-sheba Spgs, TN 37305):

"Now, I'll never forget when we were in Washington {D.C.} at the Seventh Day Adventist Seminary {General Conference building, not the Seminary which was next door} negotiating these various doctrines and going through them in 1956 (spring 1955 to spring 1956). I said:

Why don't you get a couple of Greek scholars from the Seminary bring them over here." and I said, "Dr. Canon {an Evangelical college teacher he brought with him} is a Greek scholar and I read the text of the Greek." I said, "Let us take a look at whether or not Hiram Edson and Ellen White and early Adventists were right, or if in fact the very foundation of the denomination was based upon theological error."

They said, "Fine." They sent for Dr. {William} Murdoch and for Dr. Theodore Heppenstall, both of whom were excellent Greek scholars. I'll never forget Dr. Canon sitting at this large table with all these Adventists around us, and Dr. Canon saying, "I wonder if we turn in our Bibles-I'd like you to do that right now,-to the Epistle to the Hebrews." And they said, "Fine." And they turned to Hebrews, chapter 9. When they got to Hebrews, chapter 9, we all had our Greek New Testaments out. And Dr. Canon said, "I would like to exegete for me Hebrews 9 versus 11 and 12. We won't look at any theology books, yours or ours... Just the text, and you tell me what the text says."

Dr. Murdock looked at the text, Dr. Heppenstall looked at the text, and Dr. Canon read:

"But Christ, having become a High Priest of good things which are to come by a greater and more perfect tabernacle not made with hands, that is to say not of this building, not earthly, neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by His own blood, He entered in once into the Holy Place having obtained eternal redemption for us."

Canon went through it in Greek {verbally translated it to them}, and I turned to Dr. Roy Allan Anderson, head of all Seventh-day Adventist ministers and missionaries, and I said, "All right this passage contradicts Ellen White, Hiram Edson, and all the foundations of Adventism. If Jesus at the resurrection went into the second apartment of the heavenly sanctuary in heaven itself, with his own blood and obtained eternal redemption for us, then there is no 1844 investigative judgment. It is a myth.

Anderson looked down at the text and he turned to Ted Heppenstall and said these words, "Does the Greek text say that, Ted?" And Ted Heppenstall looked up from his Greek New Testament and said, "Yes." Dr. Murdoch said, "It does."

Does the Greek text really say that? Let us use several Bible versions, and let us look at the original Greek using several Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bibles, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Strong's Bible Concordance:

HEBREWS NINE

Let us you and I examine Hebrews 9, verses 11 and 12 in the New International Version (NIV): {9:11} "When Christ came as high priest of the good things that are already here, he went through the greater and more perfect tabernacle that is not man-made, that is to say, not a part of this creation."

{9:12} "He did not enter by means of the blood of goats and calves; but he entered the Most Holy Place once for all by his own blood, having obtained eternal redemption." This particular translation states that He entered the Most Holy Place once for all by his own blood. Obviously this is AD 31.

But, let us now look at the King James Version:

{9:11} "But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building;"

{9:12} "Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us."

According to this version, in this particular verse, he entered the Holy Place not the Most Holy Place as stated in the New International Version. Again, this is AD 31, but not the same place. Which is right the NIV or the KJV? This gets even more confusing when we compare the NIV and the KJV in the following verses:

NIV {9:24} "For Christ did not enter a man-made sanctuary that was only a copy of the true one; he entered heaven itself, now to appear for us in God's presence." {9:25} "Nor did he enter heaven to offer himself again and again, the way the high priest enters the Most Holy Place every year with blood that is not his own."

KJV {9:24} "For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:" {9:25} "Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;"

The NIV in verse 24 uses the word "sanctuary" and the KJV uses the word holy places. In verse 25, the NIV uses the words "Most Holy Place" and the KJV uses the words "holy place". As we can see these two Bible versions do not agree with each other. However, in Hebrews 9:8, they do:

NIV {9:8} "The Holy Spirit was showing by this that the way into the Most Holy Place had not yet been disclosed as long as the first tabernacle was still standing."

KJV {9:8} "The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing". In this case "The Holiest of all" and the "Most Holy Place" are the same thing. But is the "Holy Place" and the "Most Holy" place, also the same thing? or the same place? Let us ask the question again, which is right? The NIV or the KJV?

What if we use another version. Let us try the New American Standard Heb-Greek Key Study Bible 1977 in Hebrews 9: 24, 25 and 8:

NASB {9:24} "For Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us;" {9:25} "nor was it that He should offer Himself often, as the high priest enters the holy place year by year with blood not his own." {9:8} "The Holy Spirit is signifying this, that the way into the holy place has not yet been disclosed, while the outer tabernacle is still standing."

According to the NASB (New-American Standard) Hebrew-Greek Study Bible, Jesus entered the holy place, not the Most Holy Place in AD 31! Once more, let us ask the question: Which Bible version is right? The NIV, the KJV or NASB?

To determine which is right, we need to determine the meaning of the Greek words in the Bible manuscripts for the words: "sanctuary", "holy place" and the "most holy place". We find the words "hagion", "hagia" and "hagia-hagion", are used in the original language in which the book of Hebrews was written.

We will start our investigation of the meaning of these three words by looking Abingdon"s Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible. Let's see how it defines the word hagion:

39. hagion {hag'-ee-on} neuter of 40; a sacred thing (i.e. spot):---holiest (of all), holy place, sanctuary.

According to the above definition (s), the word can mean 'holiest', 'holy place' or 'sanctuary'. This is where the problem begins. This is the reason why many Bibles, (particularly modern translations) use one of the three terms to define 'hagia' or 'hagion' or 'hagia hagion' as the same thing. The author of the Book of Hebrews however, was very consistent in its use. In fact, the author (of Hebrews) defines its use in the first three verses of Hebrews chapter 9. He used 'hagion' to mean the entire two apartment sanctuary {9:1}, he used 'hagia' to define 'holy place' {9:2} and he used 'hagia hagion' to define the 'holiest' or "Most Holy Place' {9:3}. He was consistent. When he meant to use 'hagia' he used 'hagia'. When he meant to use 'hagia hagion', he used 'hagia hagion', etc.

The author of Hebrews used 'hagia' in the following chapters and verses: 8:2; 9:2, 8, 12, 24, 25; 10:19; 13:11, which means Holy Place. He did not use 'hagia hagion' (Most Holy).

Let us see another definition of the same word under the number:

(hagia, hagion): The interior (either the outer or the inner of the two rooms) of the sanctuary of the Jerusalem Temple or of the earlier tabernacle or of a corresponding 'spiritual holy place,' perhaps regarded as being in heaven - 'the holy place'...'a tent was constructed, the outer one...which was called the Holy Place' He 9:2; 'he entered once and for all into the Holy Place' He 9:12. The inner room was more specifically identified by the phrase [hagia hagion] literally 'holy of holies He 9:3, a Hebrew idiom indicating superlative degree" The Louw & Nida Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament based on Semantic Domains-Second Edition. United Bible Societies, New York, 1989 Volume 1 - Under the number 7.35.

So we can see accordingly, that Jesus entered the Holy Place in AD 31, not the Most Holy (Holy of Holies). Personally I have studied quite a few other different Bible versions in the Spanish and English languages, compared text by text, using several standard Hebrew-Greek Study Bibles and Bible concordances. My conclusions are simply as follows:

1. Different Bible versions have been translated by different men or groups of men with different backgrounds and in many instances, these men give "tradition" equal force or equal inspiration as the Bible Inspired Text, making both one distinctive source of revelation. One example of this we find in the New American Bible (NAB)-Catholic Bible Press - Thomas Nelson Publishers. The NAB states under the section titled: "Purpose of the Bible" pg. IX:

"...the Bible and Tradition go hand in hand: they are not two distinct sources of revelations. As the Fathers of Vatican II put it. "Sacred tradition and sacred Scripture form one sacred deposit of the word of God which is committed to the church" (Dei Verbum, #10). In a sense, Tradition is Scripture lived in the Church."

Another interesting statement found in the same page states:

"He reveals himself in the Church through the Councils, through what Catholics call the magisterium, or "teaching authority of the Popes and Bishops," and through the lives of our people. In the Catholic faith this has been called "Tradition."

We can see then, that "tradition" plays a mayor role in what is determined as "bible truth" and / or "bible doctrine". This "tradition" placed as equal or above inspired scripture, allow for certain words to be admitted in some old bible translations and more so in the new modern ecumenical translations as the "true original Hebrew and / or Greek words", in spite of the real meaning given by the original bible authors, as we have seen and will further see in the case of Hebrews nine.

In many modern Bible translations words have been omitted, changed, substituted or modified. For example Philip Mauro {a Greek scholar} has recorded no fewer than 7, 578 verbal divergences in the gospels alone between the Textus Receptus and the Codex Vaticanus. These consist of the omission of 2,877 words, the addition of 536 words, the substitution of 935 words, the transposition of 2,098 words and the modification of 1,132 words (Philip Mauro, Which Version? Authorized or Revised?, quoted in D.O. fuller, op. cit., pg. 78. Also quoted in Modern Bible-Translations Unmasked, Russell R. Standish and Colin D. Standish pg. 10)

2. With the decree of the Second Vatican Council (Dei Verbum) and with the directive of Pope Pius XII, new modern bible translations have been made with the approval of the Catholic Church in cooperation with the "separated brethren". This fact is evidenced in the New American Bible (NAB) cited earlier. This Bible states:

"...the translators have carried out the directive of our predecessor, Pius XII, in his famous Encyclical Divino Afflante Spiritu, and the decree of the Second Vatican Council (Dei Verbum), which prescribed that 'up-to-date and appropriate translations be made in the various languages, by preference from the original texts of the sacred books,' and that 'with approval of Church authority, these translations may be produced in cooperation with our separated brethren' so that 'all 'Christians may be able to use them."

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